I am Jewish and was married to a catholic woman and subsequently divorced in 2000. We had 2 children. I am now considering marrying a Jewish woman (her mother is Jewish) who devorced her Jewish Husband 10 years ago in civil court. She subsequently married a non Jewish man who passed away 2.5 years ago. I would like to be married by a Rabbi. Does my intended need a get from her first husband? Thank you.


Thank you very much for your question, and I wish you much felicity and joy.

If your intended had no children with her second husband, then it is certainly best practice for her to receive a get from her husband.  If he would be amenable, I'm happy to direct her to a beit din that can be helpful.

If she has children from a relationship subsequent to her first marriage, then I suggest that it would be best if we spoke rather than having an extended email address.

Similarly, if the first husband cannot be found, or is unwilling to participate, again it would likely be best if we spoke.

In each of these cases it is possible or even likely that grounds can be found for a rabbinic or rabbinic court ruling that a get is unnecessary.  But finding the grounds requires knowledge of the facts.

Wishing you all happiness again and looking forward to your reply.